The results of the Time Out London sex survey 2009 were published last week. One statistic in particular stands out to me, namely that 24% of men who answered the survey have had sex with other men, breaking down as 4% who exclusively had sex with men and 20% who had sex with men and women. Can that figure really be representative of the male population in London? Or is it biased because those type of men were more likely to respond to the survey?
Thursday, November 19, 2009
Time Out London sex survey 2009
The results of the Time Out London sex survey 2009 were published last week. One statistic in particular stands out to me, namely that 24% of men who answered the survey have had sex with other men, breaking down as 4% who exclusively had sex with men and 20% who had sex with men and women. Can that figure really be representative of the male population in London? Or is it biased because those type of men were more likely to respond to the survey?
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